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T3/T4 60-1
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Discussion Starter · #1 ·
I have 4 JL 10W3 D4. To bring to 2 ohm load i need to wire the coils in series and the subs in parallel. I know what i'm doing but I don't want to screw up. Is this how I wire it:

Of the 2 wires. Take wire #1 and put in on the - lead of coil #1. Then attach a small piece of wire from + lead of Coil #1 to the - lead of coil #2. Then take wire #2 and put that on + lead of coil #2. Now for proper phase and stuff wire #1 is - and wire #2 is +.

Is all this correct?

***** READ my response ****
 

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Yes, If you do 4 DVC's that way (coils in series, subs in parallel) it will be electrically equivalent to one DVC in parallel, which is 2ohms....however, if you are using a 2 channel amp and you bridge it it will be a 1ohm load the amp "sees" (I think), because you automatically drop the load 1/2 by bridging two 4ohm channels...there are many combos with 4 DVC's

This is all very confusing, I know, but the book that came with the subs should explain? (at least they do for Rockford DVC's)...
 

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PuckPuck has explained this correctly. 2 ohm coils in series/parallel will yield a 2 ohm load. When wired to an amplifier that is bridged the amp will "see" 1 ohm. I have a paint diagram that shows how to wire it correctly...if you want it, i'll send it.

drew

*EDIT*

The above statement is true if you are using 2 subs w/ 2 ohm coils. Since PuckPuck is using 4 dual-4ohm coils (and i am illiterate), wiring each sub in series first would make each sub 8 ohms.

4 8ohm subs wired in parallel = a 2 ohm load (8 / 4)
 
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Puck^2

The coils on these subwoofers are 4ohms each, right? Dual 4ohm voice coils on each subwoofer, right? Okay, wire the coils of each subwoofer in series just like you explained for an 8ohm subwoofer. Wire the group of four subwoofers in parallel (with their voice coils wired in series) for a total impedance of 2ohms because the total impedance in parallel is the inverse of sum of inverse individual impedances ( 1/8 + 1/8 + 1/8 + 1/8 = 4/8; and 8/4 = 2).

Now . . . the impedance is 2ohms. It doesn't matter if you wire this to one channel of an amplifier or if you bridge two amplifier channels into one. The impedance is still 2ohms. If you are going to wire your subwoofers this way and bridge a two-channel amplifier to a single channel -- PLEASE make sure your amplifier is rated to support a 2ohm bridged mono load. Nearly every amplifier (of any reputable brand) on the planet will support a 2ohm bridged mono load, but make sure you check the owner's manual. Also, just in case you may have wired something incorrectly -- PLEASE keep a very close eye on the amplifier for any signs of shutdown or switch to protection mode and shut the system down immediately if that happens.

Otherwise, have fun and enjoy da bass!


Peace,
Keane
 

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T3/T4 60-1
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Discussion Starter · #5 ·
okay my question was worded incorectly... first off i have an MTX 1000D rated at 1000Watts @ 2ohm load.... i know about the ohm calculation... my question was is my wiring proper.... am i wiring the correct wires to the correct terminals on the coils....
 

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PuckPuck..it sounded like your wiring config sounded correct

Let me give another crack @ this:

There are 4 terminals, 2 + and 2 -.

Left + and Right - on the sub go to the amp.
Left - and Right + are connected.

This is the same for all 4 subs. so you will have 4 Left + and 4 Right - running to the MTX.
Then on each sub you will have the left - connected to the right +

I still have my .bmp drawing, but the CF FORUM is not allowing .bmp uploads


does this clear it up??

drew
 

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T3/T4 60-1
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Discussion Starter · #8 ·
Thank you Rockford... I was hoping someone would give me a diagram.... funny thing is i remember looking at that EXACT diagram last month, and i just couldn't remember where it was
 
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